It kind of does come across as pedantic – the real question is just that “Does pi contain all sequences”
But because of the way that it is phrased, in mathematics you do a lot of problems/phrasing proofs where you would be expected to follow along exactly in this pedantic manner
OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds
The question is
Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean…
Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn’t.
If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.
To answer the real question “Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?”
The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily
Prove that said number isn’t pi.